Re: [Scheme-reports] [r6rs-discuss] redefining eqv?
Andre van Tonder 24 Dec 2010 18:43 UTC
On Fri, 24 Dec 2010, Peter Kourzanov wrote:
> Any pointers to where this is specified? If a re-definition is the
> same as assignment, then why this yields 1 (in all R5RS implementations
> I know)
>
> (define x 1)
> (let () (define x 2) x)
> x
Because the internal definition creates and then assigns a new location
whose region is restricted to the body of the LET.
Andre
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