John J Foerch scripsit:

> The proposal now says that the gregorian and julian chronologies are
> both proleptic.  Do I interpret correctly that this means that in the
> gregorian chronology, the day before 1582-10-15 is 1582-10-14, not
> 1582-10-04?

Correct.  Note that this is only the transition date for certain
Catholic countries as well as for the Church itself.  The remaining
Catholic countries followed within a few years.  But Protestant countries
transitioned at various times in the 18th century (the English-speaking
lands in 1752 -- try typing "cal 9 1752" if you are on a non-Windows
system), and the Orthodox countries not until the 20th century.

So to interpret historical dates, we must have the correct
location and then create the appropriate compound chronology.
http://www.tondering.dk/claus/cal/gregorian.php#country gives
non-authoritative information about the transition dates in
various locations.

> In the julian chronology, is there a gregorian reform after 1582-10-04?

No.

> Do the gregorian and julian chronologies have a year zero?

Also no.

--
He made the Legislature meet at one-horse       John Cowan
tank-towns out in the alfalfa belt, so that     cowan@ccil.org
hardly nobody could get there and most of       http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
the leaders would stay home and let him go      --H.L. Mencken's
to work and do things as he pleased.              Declaration of Independence

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